Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 23.06.2025 23:55
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What would you change in Rings of Power?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
When was the first time you felt discriminated against because you were female?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
A Giant Mouth Has Opened on The Sun And Even It Looks Surprised - ScienceAlert
There's no rule.